I am not, have not and have no wish to “water(ing) down the issue”.

I didn’t realise that the post of dvs0416 was a joint effort. However, that what was said in the original post appeared to be speaking of “a specific rage problem amongst a specific group in a specific nation” and that you assert such, is the very flaw to which I addressed my comments, i.e. it is not true that the characteristics condemned are of have been only those of “a specific group in a specific nation”, (by which I assume that you mean white males in the USA.)

The reality is that such characteristics and behaviours are not and have not been the province of only that specific group and it is simplistic and a sign of inherent prejudice or bias to suggest so. The evidence of history quite clearly shows something very different.